We have a running debate going on about the use of the word
"impeached". By definition, impeachment is merely a formal accusation
brought against a political official by a legislative group.
Therefore, since Andrew
Johnson was involved in an impeachment process (against him),
we would say that he was "impeached". The only problem is that saying
he was "impeached" implies he was found guilty — which he
wasn't.
Would it then be incorrect to say he was impeached... or was he?
I guess the same rule goes for "court-martial".
The Answer:
Thanks for emailing us at Information Please. You are absolutely
correct; the word "impeachment" does in fact refer to the formal
accusation of wrongdoing and does not assume guilt. For more
information on the origin of the word and the judicial process check
out our encyclopedia
entry on impeachment, or our February 1998 Spotlight on the
subject.
You are also right in assuming that "court-martial" should be
used the same way. For more word usage help check out the newsgroup
alt.usage.english.
